Does Metaphysics 9.8 provide a persuasive analysis of why act is prior to potency?

Does Metaphysics 9.8 provide a persuasive analysis of why act is prior to potency?
This question is asking about Aristotle’s Metaphysics. I attend a catholic university. Instructions from professor: “7 pages, double-spaced typed argument, excluding title-page and bibliography. please type, in small print, at the top of the page the question you are treating. focus especially on analyzing 1 or 2 primary texts—but you must also engage 2 secondary sources, i.e. journal articles, books, or chapters in books.” No need to write about Aristotle’s metaphysics as a whole. focus on analyzing the 9.8-s argument and if it is philosophically persuasive. Use any 2 secondary sources of the type he listed I have no preference.
–please type, in small print, at the top of the page the question you are treating
–focus especially on analyzing 1 or 2 primary texts—but you must also engage 2 secondary
sources, i.e. journal articles, books, or chapters in books.

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